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fringeelements — How Property is Like Language
Published: 2010-09-29 07:26:34 +0000 UTC; Views: 708; Favourites: 0; Downloads: 13
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Description This post should help the reader "see" the stateless society as analogous to language groups.

A pidgin is a means of communication between groups of people who don't share a common language. Examples of these would the English and Portugese traders in China, Europeans in America interacting with natives, or Europeans interacting with Various people in Africa. It originally only referred to Chinese Pidgin English, but then the term came to refer to any Pidgin.

A pidgin is not really a language as we know it, though that boundary is subjective, and is certainly nobody's first language. A pidgin is makeshift and learned by adults. It usually involves a few words, and lots of circumlocution which is defining things in terms of a few words. For example, in a Pidgin there wouldn't be a word for goose but it would be called a big bird (honk) (quack). Big and bird would be words actually known in the pidgin, and honk and quack being sounds you refer to. We're talking really basic communication devices similar to how children talk when first learning a language.

Pidgin languages tend to have no embedded meanings, they lack morpophological variation. For example:
I have 3 gooses
I have 4 pastas
I have 3 coffees
I have 5 milks

Also gender tends to be dropped. I recall an example where McWhorter used where a native american spoke to a european about getting a girl, and the native referred to the squaw (the girl) as a he. "Squaw like strong, look he in eye" or something like that. Gender gets always gets dropped in a pidgin, as does the word the. Those old caricatures of how native americans talked come from their use of pidgin english.

Tones or clicks obviously are removed in a pidgin immediately. In the case of Pidgin Zulu, the clicks were replaced with a single letter K, and obviously the variation of clicks were removed.

Reduplication occurs as well if the plural form is not known. If you want more than one cup of coffee, you may say "coffee coffee coffee". An agreed upon number system can help.

As English becomes the world language I suspect English will be used instead of pidgins more and more. This is known as being a Lingua Franca. In the UN, translation usually occurs through english. If a Dutch and Japanese need to talk and they don't know each other's language, often they'll both know some english and can communicate with butchered english.

(This is why I don't think english is going anywhere anytime soon, even though the age of english-speaking states dominating the world is in it's twilight.)

If a Pidgin develops into a new first language, this is called a Creole. Obvious examples are slave plantations. Now slave plantations are great environments for creoles to develop, because the slaves have to understand the masters and they have to get along with other slaves who often spoke different languages. And so over time Pidgin Dutch, English and Portugese spoken would be mixed into Guyanese. These Creoles develop their own grammar structure, their own conjugations and become a language in their own right.

The parallels between langauge formation and property norm formation should be apparent. You have property norms for groups of 150. Then the 150 meets another group of people, who then form a pidgin property norm to mediate disuputes between people of the two groups. The next generation, dealing mostly in this pidgin property norm forms a creole property norm, and the process continues.
Similarly, various property norms, just as varous languages, can exist, though a properteria franca or some sort, like English is a lingua franca, would probably emerge to mediate disputes between people of different property norms.

In this way we can further see that property violation is a meaningful term even though property is an intersubjective phenomenon in the same way a linguistic violation is.

For example, if you say that people commonly using moral language is proof of moral realism, then that is a linguistic violation because moral realism is the position that moral claims are truth apt and moral knowledge exists in the real world. So even though language is intersubjective, you can use words wrong.

And even though property is intersubjective, you can still violate property. Furthermore, people structure their sentences (and some say structure their thought) according to the rules of language. Analogically, people structure their entire lives around the rules of property.
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